Mock TestNovember 02, 2020

Answers & Explanations: SNAP Official Mock Test 2020

Section – I: General English

Q.1) Option (A).

See But the world Fish was describing, where no one could live–tweet the lectures, let alone post the talks for worldwide distribution, now seems sepia–toned. It is clear that the phrase ‘sepia–toned’ here refers to the time that is gone and will not come back. It refers to the era that is over. 

Q.2) Option (B).

The passage is about how the way the new forms of reaching out to an audience is changing the earlier models. See These new, or at least newish, forms are upending traditional hierarchies of academic visibility and helping to change which ideas gain purchase in the public discourse. Hence b. 

Q.3) Option (D).

Options a, b and c can be derived from the passage as enough information is present to support them. D cannot be inferred from the passage. 

Q.4) Option (A).

The second part of the sentence talks about the last date of submission getting impacted. That means extend or stretch can fit there, though extend is a better choice between the two as stretch is slightly negative in meaning and here the context is positive. Enjoyed does not fit the first blank contextually. Hence option is the most appropriate. 

Q.5) Option (C).

The sentence talks about high cut–off leaving admission seekers with no real choices. Hence option c fits the best as it talks about admission seekers being forced and thereby settling for lesser known colleges. 

Q.6) Option (D).

Is aware should be are aware as the helping verb is here refers to members and therefore should be plural. 

Q.7) Option (C).

The 5th sentence says in the budget and therefore fits well after 3. Hence 35 is a pair. The rest of the sentences explain how the bifurcation is a good idea. 

Q.8) Option (B).

Platitudes means a remark or statement that has been used too often to be interesting or thoughtful. The second part of the sentence indicates that the word that comes in the gap should talk about something often repeated. 

Q.9) Option (B).

In sentence b, who refers to others which is a plural word and hence requires a plural verb. Therefore, use of uses is wrong. It should be use. 

Q.10) Option (C).

Punctilious means showing great attention to detail or correct behaviour. Hence c is the most appropriate choices. 

Q.11) Option (D).

Magnum Opus means a work of art, music, or literature that is regarded as the most important or best work that an artist, composer, or writer has produced.

Q.12) Option (A).

Furlough means leave of absence, especially that granted to a member of the services or a missionary. Hence a. 

Q.13) Option (B).

4 introduces the topic by talking about the dismemberment of the federation, 2 follows it by telling the reader which federation we are talking about, (that was Yugoslavia). 5 tells us the reason people think it got dismembered for, but 3 and 1 tell us the actual reason. 

Q.14) Option (B).

The sentence talks about indecision and how free men feel the need to choose a certain kind of ruler without caring about democracy. As the men are indecisive, they are likely to choose someone who does not value freedom and democracy. Hence autocratic is the correct choice. 

Q.15) Option (B).

Inordinate and Huge both mean unusually or disproportionately large. Considerable means notably large in size, amount but not excessive. Hence it is the word that does not match with inordinate and huge. 

Section – II: Analytical & Logical Reasoning 

Q.16) Option (D).

  1. clearly, this is ruled out
  2. It may be possible in one case but is not certain

Hence, neither conclusion follows

Q.17) Option (A).

Read the numbers upside down.

These are 91, ___, 89, 88

So, missing number is upside down of 90 i.e. 06

Q.18) Option (B).

The first two digit of the middle number is sum of all four outer numbers and the third number is always 2. Like in first figure, 5 + 7 + 9 + 3 = 24, in second figure, 12 + 13 + 14 + 11 = 50. 

So, 7 + 10 + 21 + ? = 66

Or, ? = 28

Q.19) Option (C).

Wherever the trains meet, the point will be at a fix distance from Chennai. So, both the trains will be equidistant from Chennai

Q.20) Option (C).

Here, the counting of alphabets is starting from ‘M’

So, M = 1, N = 2, O = 3, P = 4, Q = 5 and so on so forth

So, R = 6, E = 19, S = 7 and T = 8

So, REST = 6 – 19 – 7 – 8 

Q.21) Option (C).

Suppose player 1 defeats all other players. So, he will play one match with each of the other 29 players. So, there will be 29 matches.

Even if make other cases like first, 15 pairs will play 15 matches. Now out of 15 winners, 14 by play 7 matches. Now, these 7 winners along with the 1 person left out of 15 will play 4 matches. These 4 winners will play 2 matches and finally 1 match to determine the winner.

So, total matches = 15 + 7 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 29

Note: In these type of tournaments, total number of matches is always (n – 1), where n is the number of players/teams.

Q.22) Option (B).

Let A be the starting point and B be the final position. So, distance AB = 20 + 15 = 35 m and the direction is East.

Q.23) Option (C).

Each letter – 1 and the reverse

So, HONEY = GNMDX

And then reverse = XDMNG

Q.24) Option (B).

5 × 2 – 1 = 9

9 × 2 – 2 = 16

16 × 2 – 3 = 29

29 × 2 – 4 = 54

54 × 2 – 5 = 103

103 × 2 – 6 = 200

So, 7th term will be 200

Q.25) Option (B).

Oil will put off the flame as it is heavy and will drop on the flame.

Patrol will burn

Water will put off the flame

Q.26) Option (C).

The position of White and Brown is not known. But in either case, they will be opposite to each other.

Q.27) Option (D).

The schedule will be:

Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri
Operations Finance OB Marketing IS


Q.28) Option (A).

Case 1: Let first statement is true.

So, cash is not in First carton. Now, second statement must be false. So, cash is in second carton which makes the third statement true. But only one statement is true. So, this case is not possible.

Case 2: Let the second statement is true. So, cash is not in second carton. Which makes third statement false. First statement must be false. So, cash is in first carton. So, in this case, the first statement is false, second statement is true and third statement is false. And the cash is in first statement

Case 3: Let the third statement is true. So, cash is in second carton. But it makes first statement also true. Which is not possible. 

Hence, only case 2 is valid and the cash is in first carton.

Q.29) Option (D).

The triangle joining his house, office and gym is an equilateral triangle. So, triangle joining his office, gym and point A is also an equilateral triangle. So, Distance between A and gym is 4 km

Also, the triangle office–gym–B will be isosceles triangle. So, Gym–B = 4 km

So, total distance = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12 km

S.30–31) Directions for Solutions: 

There are two cases:

Case 1:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Sh Ra Ri Ti An

Case 2:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ri Ra Sh Ti An

But in first case, there are 3 students between Rina and Tina. So, this case is ruled out.

Hence

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ri Ra Sh Ti An


Q.30) Option (B).

Q.31) Option (C).

Q.32) Option (D).

Option ‘a’ will be represented like:

Option ‘b’ will be represented like:

Option ‘c’ will be represented like:

Hence, Option ‘d’ is correct

Q.33) Option (B).

After 4 turns, he will be at the same direction. So, after any multiple of 4, he will be at the same direction.

So, in 3824 turns, he will be at the same direction

In next 2 turns, he will move 900 clock–wise 2 times.

So, he will face Mahesh

Q.34) Option (C).

Baby Pig is called Farrow

Baby Lion is called Cub

Baby Bear is also called Cub

Q.35) Option (D).

After unscrambling we will get

  1. SUMMER
  2. WINTER
  3. SPRING
  4. CLOUD

First three are seasons

So, CLOUD is different

Q.36) Option (C).

The centre of the circle at the top will lie outside the base circles (in the middle of the three) and the centres of all the base circles are on the top circle, so the radius will be greater than r

Q.37) Option (B).

2 × 3 + 5 = 11

(–5) × 2 + (–2) = –12

(–10) × 6 + (–10) = –70 

Q.38) Option (A).

Z – Y = 1

Y – X = 1

X – V = 2

V – S = 3

1, 1, 2, 3 is a Fibonacci series

So, next term is 2 + 3 = 5

So, S – ? = 5

Or, ? = N

Q.39) Option (C).

Gannu is brother of Molu and Polu. So, Golu’s maternal uncle is Gannu.

Q.40) Option (B).

To show the correct time, the clock must gain 1 minute

The watch gains 3 minutes in 48 hrs

So, it will gain 1 minute in 16 hrs

So, it will show correct time at 5 a.m. on Wednesday

Section – III: Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency

Q.41) Option (A).

Average price per litre minus the taxes = (35+34+35.5+37+37.5+38)/6 = 217/6

So, average amount of tax collected = 125% of 217/6 = 45.2

Q.42) Option (A).

Let the sides are 2x and 7x respectively

So, perimeter = 2(L + B) = 2(7x + 2x) = 18x

So, 18x = 360

Or, x = 20

So, length and breadth are 140 and 40 respectively

Alternate Approach: Only option a has the length and breadth in the ratio 7 : 2

Q.43) Option (D).

Let the work = 30 units

So, A can do 3 units/day and B can do 2 units/day

So, work done in 4 days = 4 × (3 + 2) = 20 units

So, fraction of work done = 20/30 = 2/3

So, Work left = 1/3

Alternate Approach:

A and B together can finish the work in days

So, in remaining 2 days, work will be done

Which is left.

Q.44) Option (A).

Let the distance = 200 km

So, time excluding the halts = 200/50 = 4 hrs

And time including the halts = 200/40 = 5 hrs

So, stoppage time in 5 hrs = 1 hr

So, in 1 hr = 1/5 hr = 12 minutes

Alternate Approach:

Ratio of speed = 5 : 4

So, ratio of time = 4 : 5

So, 1 hrs stoppage in 5hrs

Q.45) Option (D).

In the given word, there are 2 A and 2 T

The letters of the word can be arranged in 9!/2!2! = 90720

Q.46) Option (D).

Let x, y and z be the number of items purchased by Nisha of price Rs. 5, 2 and 1 respectively

So, 5x + 2y + (z + 3) = 20 

Or, 5x + 2y + z = 17 … (1)

Now, x, y and z are at least 2

Case 1:

If x = 3, 2y + z = 2

But the minimum value of 2y + z will be 6

So, this case is not possible

Case 2:

If x = 2, 2y + z = 7

So, y = 2 and z = 3

No other case is possible

So, total number of items = 2 + 2 + 3 + 3(extra) = 10 

Q.47) Option (B).

The diagram will look like:

So, Only B : Only C = 5 : 10 = 1 : 2

Q.48) Option (D).

x/5=y

y% of 20 = y/5 = x/25

And, (x/25)*100 = 4% of x

Q.49) Option (D).

Number of green dyes = 5

Number of red dyes = 3

Number of blue dyes = 4

Number of combinations with any number of red dyes = 23 = 8

Number of combinations with at least one green dye = 25 – 1 = 31

Number of combinations with at least one blue dye = 24 – 1 = 15

Total number of ways = 8 × 31 × 15 = 3720

Alternate Approach:

Total number of cases = 212 = 4096

Answer must be less than this but not as low as 31 or 60

Q.50) Option (A).

Marathi books can be arranged among themselves in 5! = 120 ways

English books can be arranged among themselves in 3! = 6 ways

Tamil books can be arranged among themselves in 3! = 6 ways

And these three groups can be arranged in 3! = 6 ways

So, total number of ways = 120 × 6 × 6 × 6 = 25920

Q.51) Option (B).

Total fund = 20 × 10000 = 2,00,000

Investment if risk management = 50% of 2,00,000 = 1,00,000

Investment in securities = 1,00,000

Gain by equities = 1% of 1,00,000 = 1,000

Gain by riskless securities = 7.8% of 1,00,000 = 7800

So, total gain = 1000 + 7800 = 8800

Gain per student = 8800/20 = 440

Gain % = (440/10000)*100 = 4.4%

Alternate Approach: As both investments are same, the average gain % = (1% + 7.8%)/2 = 4.4%

Q.52) Option (C).

Total number of words starting with M = 5! = 120

Q.53) Option (D).

For two years, 

= 23152.5

Alternate Approach:

For 3 years at SI, the interest would have been 15% of 20000 = 3000

So, at CI, interest should be slightly more than 3000 or amount more than 23000.

Option b is very high so option d is correct

Q.54) Option (A).

Let the income = 100x

So, amount spent on clothes = (2/(4+2+5))*55x = 10x

So, 10x = 5540

Or, x = 554

So, monthly income = 55400

Q.55) Option (B).

Let the price of fridge = 100. So, price of TV = 150

So, total price = 250

Required % = (100/250)*100 = 40

Q.56) Option (B).

Let the expenditure = 100

So, because of increase in price by 20%, the expenditure should have been 120.

But he wants to spend 5% extra i.e. 105

So, because of consumption, 120 should brought down to 105 

So, percentage decrease = (15/120)*100 = 12.5

Q.57) Option (D).

Radius of the largest semi–circle = 14

Radius for the smaller semi–circles = 3.5, 3.5 and 7

Q.58) Option (C).

When Anu covers 4000 m, Bina covers 3400 m

Also, when Bina covers 4000 m, Caira can cover 3800 m

So, when Bina covers 3400 m, Caira will cover (3800/4000)*3400 = 3230m

So, when Anu covers 4000 m, Caira will cover 3230 m

So, Anu can give Caira a startup of 4000 – 3230 = 770 m

Q.59) Option (A).

Let the number to be multiplied = x

So, 34x – 25x = 405

Or, x = 45

So, 34 × 45 = 1530

Q.60) Option (C).

Let the fixed charge = Rs. a and variable charge = Rs. b/km

So, a + 10b = 150 … (1)

And, a + 15b = 220 … (2)

So, a = 10 and b = 14

So, for 25 km, total fare = 10 + 25 × 14 = 360

Alternate Approach:

For increase of 5 km, fare increased by 220 – 150 = 70

So, for increase of 10 km, fare will be increased by 140

So, fare of 25 km = 220 + 140 = 360

 

Q. No. Title Subject Area Topic Sub Topic Difficulty Level Answer Key Mark Negative Mark
1 Q.1 General English General English General English General English Medium A 1 0.25
2 Q.2 General English General English General English General English Medium B 1 0.25
3 Q.3 General English General English General English General English Medium D 1 0.25
4 Q.4 General English General English General English General English Medium A 1 0.25
5 Q.5 General English General English General English General English Medium C 1 0.25
6 Q.6 General English General English General English General English Medium D 1 0.25
7 Q.7 General English General English General English General English Medium C 1 0.25
8 Q.8 General English General English General English General English Medium B 1 0.25
9 Q.9 General English General English General English General English Medium B 1 0.25
10 Q.10 General English General English General English General English Medium C 1 0.25
11 Q.11 General English General English General English General English Medium D 1 0.25
12 Q.12 General English General English General English General English Medium A 1 0.25
13 Q.13 General English General English General English General English Medium B 1 0.25
14 Q.14 General English General English General English General English Medium B 1 0.25
15 Q.15 General English General English General English General English Medium B 1 0.25
16 Q.16 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium D 1 0.25
17 Q.17 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium A 1 0.25
18 Q.18 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium B 1 0.25
19 Q.19 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
20 Q.20 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
21 Q.21 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
22 Q.22 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium B 1 0.25
23 Q.23 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
24 Q.24 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium B 1 0.25
25 Q.25 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium B 1 0.25
26 Q.26 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
27 Q.27 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium D 1 0.25
28 Q.28 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium A 1 0.25
29 Q.29 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium D 1 0.25
30 Q.30 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium B 1 0.25
31 Q.31 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
32 Q.32 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium D 1 0.25
33 Q.33 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium B 1 0.25
34 Q.34 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
35 Q.35 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium D 1 0.25
36 Q.36 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
37 Q.37 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium B 1 0.25
38 Q.38 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium A 1 0.25
39 Q.39 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium C 1 0.25
40 Q.40 Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Analytical & Logical Reasoning Medium B 1 0.25
41 Q.41 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium A 1 0.25
42 Q.42 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium A 1 0.25
43 Q.43 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium D 1 0.25
44 Q.44 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium A 1 0.25
45 Q.45 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium D 1 0.25
46 Q.46 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium D 1 0.25
47 Q.47 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium B 1 0.25
48 Q.48 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium D 1 0.25
49 Q.49 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium D 1 0.25
50 Q.50 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium A 1 0.25
51 Q.51 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium B 1 0.25
52 Q.52 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium C 1 0.25
53 Q.53 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium D 1 0.25
54 Q.54 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium A 1 0.25
55 Q.55 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium B 1 0.25
56 Q.56 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium B 1 0.25
57 Q.57 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium D 1 0.25
58 Q.58 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium C 1 0.25
59 Q.59 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium A 1 0.25
60 Q.60 QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS QA, DI & DS Medium C 1 0.25

Questions Paper: SNAP Official Mock Test 2020

Section – I: General English

S.1–3) Directions for Questions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

A TED talk (the acronym stands for Technology, Entertainment, and Design) is one of the routes to academic stardom that didn’t exist a decade ago. (The 30th anniversary celebration aside, curators only began posting fame–making free online videos in 2006.) Although TED plays an inordinate role in setting the tone for how ideas are conveyed – not only because of the reach of its videos but also through spinoffs like regional “TEDx” events and the TED Radio hour, one of the few places nonpolicy intellectuals get substantial on–air time – it’s just one of a number of platforms that are changing the ecology of academic celebrity. These include similar ideas–in–nuggets conclaves, such as the Aspen Ideas Festival and PopTech, along with huge online courses and – yes, still – blogs. These new, or at least newish, forms are upending traditional hierarchies of academic visibility and helping to change which ideas gain purchase in the public discourse.

In a famous essay, “The Unbearable Ugliness of Volvos,” first published in the early 90s, the literary scholar Stanley Fish wrote that “the flourishing of the lecture circuit has brought with it new sources of extra income …[and] an ever growing list of stages on which to showcase one’s talents, and geometric increase in the availability of the commodities for which academics yearn, attention, applause, fame, and ultimately, adulation of a kind usually reserved for the icons of popular culture.” Fish was Exhibit A among professors taking advantage of such trends, and his trailblazing as a lit–crit celebrity inspired the dapper, globe–trotting lit–theory operator Morris Zapp, a character in David Lodge’s academic satire Small Word. But the world Fish was describing, where no one could live–tweet the lectures, let alone post the talks for worldwide distribution, now seems sepia–toned. “If David Lodge’s Morris Zapp were alive and kicking today,” observes John Holbo, an associate professor of philosophy at the National University of Singapore, and blogger at Crooked Timber and the value, “he’d be giving a TED talk, not an MLA talk. Which is to say: He wouldn’t be doing Theory. He probably wouldn’t be in an English department.”

Q.1) The phrase “Sepia–toned” implies:

*a) The end of an era
b) The way things were
c) The brown pigment
d) The time bound nature of things

Q.2) The passage is mainly about:

a) Technology, Entertainment, and Design
*b) Turning over the conventional
c) Gaining popular adulation
d) Changing presentations

Q.3) Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

a) TED is the future.
b) Theory can no longer be counted on.
c) Philosophy is best understood through demos.
*d) TED is irreplaceable.

Q.4) The flood of brilliant ideas has not only _______ us, but has also encouraged us to ______ the last date for submission of entries.

*a) overwhelmed, extend
b) enjoyed, stretch
c) dismayed, decide
d) scared, scrap

Q.5) The high cut–off marks this year have ______ college admission–seekers to either _______ for lesser known colleges or change their subject preferences.

a) cajoled, ask
b) pressured, sit
*c) forced, settle
d) strained, compromise

Q.6) The question below consists of statements having four phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of the phrases is grammatically incorrect. 

Identify the incorrect phrase:

(1) However, the advantages of teamwork can be minimized

(2) and the benefits increased

(3) if members (particularly those who lead them)

(4) is aware of the methods for improving performance and making decisions

a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
*d) (4)

Q.7) The question has a sentence that has been scrambled and the scrambled parts have been marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).

Find the correct order of the parts to reconstruct the sentence.

(1) but there is some merit in it

(2) as distinct from consumption

(3) bifurcation of plan and non–plan funds

(4) in so far as it focuses attention on development expenses

(5) in the budget is artificial

a) 12345
b) 34251
*c) 35124
d) 45132

Q.8) His remarks were filled with _____, which sounded lofty but presented nothing new to the audience. 

a) aphorisms
*b) platitudes
c) bombast
d) adages

Q.9) The question below consists of statements having four phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of the phrases is grammatically incorrect. 

Identify the incorrect phrase:

(1) when assertion is used with the win–win approach

(2) and with others who also uses the win–win approach

(3) each party can consider the needs of the other and

(4) more towards a solution that satisfies as many needs as possible

a) (1)
*b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)

Q.10) Choose the option which is similar in meaning to the word given below:

PUNCTILIOUS

a) Prude
b) Wasteful
*c) Meticulous
d) Timid

Q.11) A great literary or artistic work is known as ________.

a) par excellence
b) bete noire
c) peccadillo
*d) magnum opus

Q.12) Choose the option which is similar in meaning to the word given below:

FURLOUGH

*a) Soldiers holiday
b) Wild growth
c) Wooden plough
d) Till

Q.13) The question has a sentence that has been scrambled and the scrambled parts have been marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).

Find the most coherent order.

(1) in different regions of that federation

(2) that was Yugoslavia

(3) the fundamental cause has been the very large difference in the quality of life

(4) although the dismemberment of the federation

(5) is seen more as the result of an ethnic conflict

a) 12345
*b) 42531
c) 12543
d) 12453

Q.14) When indecision grips a nation, free men feel the need for an _______ ruler and are prepared to throw democracy overboard.

a) optimistic
*b) autocratic
c) eccentric
d) energetic

Q.15) Choose the word that does NOT match with the two given words:

Inordinate, Huge

a) Excessive
*b) Considerable
c) Insatiable
d) Enormous

Section – II: Analytical & Logical Reasoning

Q.16) Statements: All bulbs are birds. Some birds are butterflies.

Conclusions:

  1. All butterflies are bulbs
  2. Some bulbs are butterflies

a) if only conclusion II follows
b) if only conclusion I follows
c) if either conclusion I or II follows
*d) if neither conclusion I or II follows

Q.17) Find the missing number in the series: 

16, ____, 68, 88

*a) 06
b) 08
c) 36
d) 46

Q.18) Reference

Find the missing number (?)

a) 26
*b) 28
c) 32
d) 34

Q.19) A fast train leaves Chennai to Bengaluru and at the same time a slow train leaves from Bengaluru to Chennai. The fast train moves at a speed of 60 km/hr and the slow train moves at half of the speed of the fast train. Both these trains meet at a point after some time. Which of these trains are further away from Chennai when they meet? (Do not consider the length of the trains)

a) The fast train is further from Chennai
b) The slow train is further from Chennai
*c) Both the trains are equidistant from Chennai
d) None of the option is correct

Q.20) If NOR is coded as 2–3–6, then how should REST be coded in the same code language?

a) 6–19–6–7
b) 5–19–5–8
*c) 6–19–7–8
d) 6–18–5–8

Q.21) Men Singles Tennis Tournament is being held out at Mumbai. 30 players participated in the tournament. There is a rule that is implemented, the rule states that, if a player loses a match then he is eliminated from the tournament. How many matches have to be played to decide the winner of the tournament?

a) 30
b) 15
*c) 29
d) 10

Q.22) Rajesh walked 25 meters towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 meters. He then turned to his left and walked 25 meters. He again turned to his right and walked 15 meters. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?

a) 60 meters – East
*b) 35 meters – East
c) 35 meters – North
d) 40 meters – East

Q.23) In a certain language, ‘DRINK’ is coded as ‘JMHQC’ and ‘BLOTS’ is coded as ‘RSNKA’. In the same code language, ‘HONEY’ will be coded as ‘________’

a) XDMOG
b) GNMDX
*c) XDMNG
d) DXMGN

Q.24) Which is the seventh number in the sequence 5, 9, 16, 29, 54

a) 300
*b) 200
c) 330
d) 103

Q.25) Reference

Three lamps A, B and C as shown in the figure above are burning using oil as its source of energy. Three incense sticks E, F and G are taken. E is dipped in oil, F is dipped in patrol and G is dipped in water and are immediately placed over the wick of A, B and C respectively. Then

a) A will grow bright, B will grow bright and C will be put off
*b) A will be put off, B will glow bright and C will be put off
c) A, B and C will keep glowing
d) C will be put off and the status of A and B cannot be determined

Q.26) A cube has six sides each of a different colour. The red side is opposite black. The green side is between red and black. The blue side is adjacent to white and the brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down. The side opposite brown is

a) red
b) black
*c) white
d) green

Q.27) Lectures by industry experts have to be scheduled in Marketing, Finance, Operations, Organisational Behaviour and Information Systems. This has to be scheduled on a weekday (Monday to Friday). Only one lecture can be scheduled per day. Marketing cannot be scheduled on Tuesday as it is inconvenient for the expert. Expert from finance is available only on Tuesday. As Information System and Finance are always considered important, Information Systems has to be scheduled immediately on the day following the Marketing lecture. The Dean has decided that Organisational Behaviour lecture has to be scheduled immediately before the day of Marketing lecture. Finally, the schedule is prepared which satisfies all conditions.

Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?

a) Finance
b) Marketing
c) Information System
*d) Operations

Q.28) There are three closed cartons in a room. One of the cartons contains cash. There is a printed message that is displayed outside each carton. Only one message is True and the other two messages are False. The first carton has the message: Cash is not in the carton. The second has the message: No cash in the carton. The third carton has the message: Cash is in the second carton. 

Which carton has the cash?

*a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Cannot be determined

Q.29) Shyam’s house, his office and his gym are all equidistant from each other. The distance between any 2 of them is 4 km. Shyam starts walking from his gym in a direction parallel to the road connecting his office and his house and stops when he reaches a point directly east of his office. He then reverses direction and walks till he reaches a point directly south of his office. The total distance walked by shyam is

a) 9 km
b) 6 km
c) 16 km
*d) 12 km

S.30–31) Directions for Questions: 

Twenty students are standing in a straight line facing north, Rina is standing sixth from the left end. There are only three students between Rina and Shweta. Radha is standing exactly between Shweta and Rina. Tina is standing sixth to the right of Radha. Anita is standing fourth from the right end of the line. There are more than four students between Rina and Tina.

Q.30) How many people are standing between Anita and Tina?

a) one
*b) two
c) three
d) none

Q.31) What is Shweta’s position with respect to Anita?

a) Sixth to the left
b) Eighth to the left
*c) Seventh to the left
d) Ninth to the left

Q.32) Reference

If A and B are represented by the above diagrams as two circles then shaded area is represented as?

a) A B
b) (A B) – A
c) (A B) A
*d) None of the option is correct

Q.33) Reference

Unmesh is facing Jayesh and when he hears a bell ring, he turns towards Rajesh by making 900 shift. He continues to do this every time the bell rings. If the bell rang 3926 times, whom will Unmesh be facing?

a) Rajesh
*b) Mahesh
c) Suresh
d) Jayesh

Q.34) If Pig : Farrow and Lion : Cub, then Bear : 

a) Goat
b) Cygnet
*c) Cub
d) Foal

Q.35) In these questions, there are four groups of letters, words or numbers listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of the groups does not belong to the same category as others. Find the odd one out. Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out

a) UMRSME
b) EIWNTR
c) PIGRSN
*d) LCUOD

Q.36) Ram places three identical cones of radius ‘r’ on a table in such a way that each cone base touches the other two, also the altitude of the cone is perpendicular to the table. The radius of the circle drawn through the cone vertices would be?

a) Smaller than r
b) Equal to r
*c) Larger than r
d) Cannot be determined

Q.37) Reference

Find the missing number.

a) 13
*b) –70
c) 15
d) –60

Q.38) Given the series Z, Y, X, V, S, the next alphabet will be?

*a) N
b) O
c) L
d) K

Q.39) If Golu is son of Molu, Molu and Polu are sisters, Pillu is Polu’s mother, Gannu is son of Pillu, which of the following statements is definitely true?

a) Golu and Gannu are cousins
b) Golu’s nephew is Gannu
*c) Golu’s maternal uncle is Gannu
d) None of the option is correct

Q.40) A watch is a minute slow at 1 p.m. on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 p.m. on Thursday. When did it show the correct time?

a) 1 a.m. on Wednesday
*b) 5 a.m. on Wednesday
c) 1 p.m. on Wednesday
d) 5 p.m. on Wednesday

Section – III: Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency

Q.41) Assume that the taxes on petrol is 125% of the price of petrol per litre as received by the retailer minus the taxes. If in the last week, the petrol prices per litre as received by the retailer minus the taxes was 35, 34, 35.5, 37, 37.5 and 38, the average amount of tax collected per litre of patrol is

*a) 45.2
b) 46.1
c) 44
d) None of the option is correct

Q.42) If the ratio of sides of a rectangle is 2 : 7 and perimeter is 360 m, then find out its length and breadth. 

*a) 140 m, 40 m
b) 144 m, 36 m
c) 160 m, 20 m
d) 135 m, 45 m

Q.43) A is able to do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. If they can work together for four days, what is the fraction of work left?

a) 1/2
b) 2/3
c) 3/2
*d) 1/3

Q.44) Excluding the halts, the speed of the bus is 50 km/hr and including the halts it is 40 km/hr. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

*a) 12
b) 10
c) 15
d) 11

Q.45) Big Bang Theory cast wishes to find out the number of ways in which the word ASTRONAUT can be scrambled. They find that the number of ways in which it can be put in an unscrambling puzzle is?

a) 362880
b) 181400
c) 60480
*d) 90720

Q.46) Nisha went to buy three types of stationary products, each of them was priced at Rs. 5, Rs. 2 and Rs. 1 respectively. She purchased all three types of products in more than one quantity and gave Rs. 20 to the shopkeeper. Since the shopkeeper had no change with him/her; he/she gave Nisha three more products of price Re 1 each. Find out the number of products with Nisha at the end of the transaction.

a) 8
b) 12
c) 11
*d) 10

Q.47) During the placement season of a class, 21 students got shortlisted for company A, 26 got shortlisted for company B and 29 got shortlisted for company C and 14 students got shortlisted for both A and B, 12 students got shortlisted for both A and C and 15 for both B and C. All the companies shortlisted 8 students from the class, then what is the ratio of number of students who got shortlisted for only B and number of students who got shortlisted for only C?

a) 1 : 1
*b) 1 : 2
c) 2 : 3
d) 3 : 2

Q.48) If 20% of x = y, then y% of 20 is same as

a) 10% of x
b) 20% of x
c) 15% of x
*d) 4% of x 

Q.49) ABC Paints Ltd. is planning to create different combination of dyes. The research team has decided they will be using five different green dyes, three different red dyes and four different blue dyes. How many combinations of dyes can be created by ABC Paints Ltd., by including at least one blue and one green dye?

a) 5720
b) 60
c) 31
*d) None

Q.50) The number of ways that 5 Marathi, 3 English and 3 Tamil books be arranged if the books of each language are to be kept together is

*a) 25920
b) 9250
c) 5920
d) 7480

Q.51) Students of an MBA school have got together to contribute a fund where each student has contributed Rs. 10000. This group of 20 students laid down certain rules for investment where it was agreed that 50 percent of the funds would be invested in riskless government securities while the rest 50 percent would be invested in equities. At the end of the year, the group realizes that the crash in the stock market has left them with zero return on equities but 1 percent dividend gain on the shares bought. The return on the riskless government security has been 7.8 percent in the last year. If the gains are to be divided equally, the gain per student is

a) 2.2 percent
*b) 4.4 percent
c) 6.6 percent
d) None

Q.52) How many different words can be formed with the word CUSTOM with the condition that the word should begin with M?

a) 720
b) 540
*c) 120
d) 180

Q.53) A man lends some money to his friend at 5% per annum of interest rate. After 2 years, the difference between the simple and the compound interest on money is Rs. 50. What will be the value of the amount at the end of 3 years if compounded annually?

a) 21325.6
b) 24512.5
c) 22252.7
*d) 23152.5

Q.54) Kajal spends 55% of her monthly income on grocery, clothes and education in the ratio of 4 : 2 : 5 respectively. If the amount spent on clothes is Rs. 5540, what is Kajal’s monthly income?

*a) Rs. 55400
b) Rs. 54500
c) Rs. 55450
d) Rs. 55650

Q.55) A man purchased a TV and fridge. If the price of TV is 150% of price of fridge then price of fridge is what percentage of the total cost of TV and fridge?

a) 30
*b) 40
c) 45
d) 50

Q.56) If the price of sugar increased by 20%, and Salman intends to spend only on additional 5% of sugar, then find out the percentage decrease in his sugar consumption.

a) 5.25
*b) 12.5
c) 11.75
d) 10.25

Q.57) Reference

In the following diagram there are four semi circular arcs and a shaded region. The diameter of the largest semi–circle is 28 cm and of the smallest is 7 cm. The area of the shaded region is

a) 98.75 ?
b) 120.5 ?
c) 105.5 ?
*d) 110.25 ?

Q.58) In a running race, when one runner allows another runner to stay ahead at the start of the race, then it is termed as startup and when runners reach the finish line at the same time, then it is termed as dead heat. In a race of 4 km distance, Anu wins by 600 m over Bina. Bina can give a startup of 200 m to Caira in a 4 km race. By how much distance should Caira get startup so that the race between Anu and Caira ends in a dead heat in the same race of 4 km?

a) 700 m
b) 750 m
*c) 770 m
d) 725 m

Q.59) Sumit was doing a multiplication, but by mistake instead of taking 25 as one of the multipliers, he took 34. Now, because of this mistake, the answer was 405 more than the correct answer. Find out the answer that Sumit arrived at.

*a) 1530
b) 1450
c) 1350
d) 1620

Q.60) Pune taxi services has a fixed rate charge plus a variable charge based on the distance covered. For travelling 10 km the total fare paid by Sonu is Rs 150 and for a journey of 15 km, the total fare paid by Ramu is Rs. 220. Then Tomy will pay _____ as the total fare for travelling a distance of 25 km.

a) Rs. 350
b) Rs. 380
*c) Rs. 360
d) Rs. 400